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SY0-701 Exam Dumps For Certification Exam Preparation
NEW QUESTION # 96
An administrator is reviewing a single server's security logs and discovers the following;
Which of the following best describes the action captured in this log file?
- A. Failed password audit
- B. Forgotten password by the user
- C. Brute-force attack
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: C
Explanation:
A brute-force attack is a type of attack that involves systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords or keys until the correct one is found. The log file shows multiple failed login attempts in a short amount of time, which is a characteristic of a brute-force attack. The attacker is trying to guess the password of the Administrator account on the server. The log file also shows the event ID 4625, which indicates a failed logon attempt, and the status code 0xC000006A, which means the user name is correct but the password is wrong. These are indicators of compromise (IoC) that suggest a brute-force attack is taking place. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 and 223 1
NEW QUESTION # 97
An organization's internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow.
Which of the following should the organization deploy to best protect against similar attacks in the future?
- A. TLS
- B. WAF
- C. NGFW
- D. SD-WAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an application writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations. This can lead to unexpected behavior, such as crashes, errors, or code execution. A buffer overflow can be exploited by an attacker to inject malicious code or commands into the application, which can compromise the security and functionality of the system. An organization's internet-facing website was compromised when an attacker exploited a buffer overflow. To best protect against similar attacks in the future, the organization should deploy a web application firewall (WAF). A WAF is a type of firewall that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. A WAF can detect and block common web attacks, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting (XSS), and more. A WAF can also enforce security policies and rules, such as input validation, output encoding, and encryption. A WAF can provide a layer of protection for the web application, preventing attackers from exploiting its vulnerabilities and compromising its data. References = Buffer Overflows - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.3, Web Application Firewalls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.4, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]
NEW QUESTION # 98
A security administrator would like to protect data on employees' laptops. Which of the following encryption techniques should the security administrator use?
- A. Full disk
- B. Asymmetric
- C. Partition
- D. Database
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Full disk encryption (FDE) is a technique that encrypts all the data on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. FDE protects the data from unauthorized access in case the laptop is lost, stolen, or disposed of without proper sanitization. FDE requires the user to enter a password, a PIN, a smart card, or a biometric factor to unlock the drive and boot the system. FDE can be implemented by using software solutions, such as BitLocker, FileVault, or VeraCrypt, or by using hardware solutions, such as self-encrypting drives (SEDs) or Trusted Platform Modules (TPMs). FDE is a recommended encryption technique for laptops and other mobile devices that store sensitive data.
Partition encryption is a technique that encrypts only a specific partition or volume on a hard drive, leaving the rest of the drive unencrypted. Partition encryption is less secure than FDE, as it does not protect the entire drive and may leave traces of data on unencrypted areas. Partition encryption is also less convenient than FDE, as it requires the user to mount and unmount the encrypted partition manually.
Asymmetric encryption is a technique that uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, to encrypt and decrypt data. Asymmetric encryption is mainly used for securing communication, such as email, web, or VPN, rather than for encrypting data at rest. Asymmetric encryption is also slower and more computationally intensive than symmetric encryption, which is the type of encryption used by FDE and partition encryption.
Database encryption is a technique that encrypts data stored in a database, such as tables, columns, rows, or cells. Database encryption can be done at the application level, the database level, or the file system level.
Database encryption is useful for protecting data from unauthorized access by database administrators, hackers, or malware, but it does not protect the data from physical theft or loss of the device that hosts the database.
References = Data Encryption - CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 4.4, CompTIA Security+ Cheat Sheet and PDF | Zero To Mastery, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Course - Cybr, Application Hardening - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2.
NEW QUESTION # 99
A company's marketing department collects, modifies, and stores sensitive customer data. The infrastructure team is responsible for securing the data while in transit and at rest. Which of the following data roles describes the customer?
- A. Subject
- B. Processor
- C. Custodian
- D. Owner
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored by an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data. Data subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is classified, protected, and used. Data subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that perform operations on data on behalf of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying, storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are the individuals or entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest.
ReferencesCompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Data Security, page 511
NEW QUESTION # 100
A security administrator needs a method to secure data in an environment that includes some form of checks so that the administrator can track any changes. Which of the following should the administrator set up to achieve this goal?
- A. NAC
- B. SPF
- C. GPO
- D. FIM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, which is a method to secure data by detecting any changes or modifications to files, directories, or registry keys. FIM can help a security administrator track any unauthorized or malicious changes to the data, as well as verify the integrity and compliance of the data. FIM can also alert the administrator of any potential breaches or incidents involving the data.
Some of the benefits of FIM are:
It can prevent data tampering and corruption by verifying the checksums or hashes of the files.
It can identify the source and time of the changes by logging the user and system actions.
It can enforce security policies and standards by comparing the current state of the data with the baseline or expected state.
It can support forensic analysis and incident response by providing evidence and audit trails of the changes.
References:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Technologies and Tools, Section
5.3: Security Tools, p. 209-210
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Technologies and Tools, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, analyze and interpret output from security technologies, Sub-objective:
File integrity monitor, p. 12
NEW QUESTION # 101
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
- A. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny
0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53 - B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25
32 port 53 - C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32
0.0.0.0/0 port 53 - D. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0
0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to send outbound DNS requests (B). References = You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1
* Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2
* TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28:
Firewall Rules3
NEW QUESTION # 102
A company is planning a disaster recovery site and needs to ensure that a single natural disaster would not result in the complete loss of regulated backup dat a. Which of the following should the company consider?
- A. Load balancing
- B. Hot site
- C. Platform diversity
- D. Geographic dispersion
Answer: D
Explanation:
Geographic dispersion is the practice of having backup data stored in different locations that are far enough apart to minimize the risk of a single natural disaster affecting both sites. This ensures that the company can recover its regulated data in case of a disaster at the primary site. Platform diversity, hot site, and load balancing are not directly related to the protection of backup data from natural disasters. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 449; Disaster Recovery Planning: Geographic Diversity
NEW QUESTION # 103
A systems administrator receives the following alert from a file integrity monitoring tool:
The hash of the cmd.exe file has changed.
The systems administrator checks the OS logs and notices that no patches were applied in the last two months. Which of the following most likely occurred?
- A. The end user changed the file permissions.
- B. A snapshot of the file system was taken.
- C. A cryptographic collision was detected.
- D. A rootkit was deployed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A rootkit is a type of malware that modifies or replaces system files or processes to hide its presence and activity. A rootkit can change the hash of the cmd.exe file, which is a command-line interpreter for Windows systems, to avoid detection by antivirus or file integrity monitoring tools. A rootkit can also grant the attacker remote access and control over the infected system, as well as perform malicious actions such as stealing data, installing backdoors, or launching attacks on other systems. A rootkit is one of the most difficult types of malware to remove, as it can persist even after rebooting or reinstalling the OS. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 147. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 9.
NEW QUESTION # 104
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence
NEW QUESTION # 105
An administrator is reviewing a single server's security logs and discovers the following;
Which of the following best describes the action captured in this log file?
- A. Failed password audit
- B. Forgotten password by the user
- C. Brute-force attack
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A brute-force attack is a type of attack that involves systematically trying all possible combinations of passwords or keys until the correct one is found. The log file shows multiple failed login attempts in a short amount of time, which is a characteristic of a brute-force attack. The attacker is trying to guess the password of the Administrator account on the server. The log file also shows the event ID 4625, which indicates a failed logon attempt, and the status code 0xC000006A, which means the user name is correct but the password is wrong. These are indicators of compromise (IoC) that suggest a brute-force attack is taking place. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 and 223 1
NEW QUESTION # 106
A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following:
Which of the following is the best explanation for what the security analyst has discovered?
- A. The user jsmith's account has been locked out.
- B. Ransomware has been deployed in the domain.
- C. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith's account.
- D. A keylogger is installed on [smith's workstation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated tools or scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker's IP address, reset ismith's password, and notify ismith of the incident. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1
NEW QUESTION # 107
An employee receives a text message that appears to have been sent by the payroll department and is asking for credential verification. Which of the following social engineering techniques are being attempted? (Choose two.)
- A. Vishing
- B. Impersonation
- C. Smishing
- D. Phishing
- E. Misinformation
- F. Typosquatting
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses text messages (SMS) to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Smishing messages often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or service providers, and use urgent or threatening language to persuade the recipients to take action12. In this scenario, the text message that claims to be from the payroll department is an example of smishing.
Impersonation is a type of social engineering technique that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure, a trusted person, or a colleague, to gain the trust or cooperation of the target. Impersonation can be done through various channels, such as phone calls, emails, text messages, or in-person visits, and can be used to obtain information, access, or money from the victim34. In this scenario, the text message that pretends to be from the payroll department is an example of impersonation.
A: Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domain names that are similar to popular or well-known websites, but with intentional spelling errors or different extensions. Typosquatting aims to exploit the common mistakes that users make when typing web addresses, and redirect them to malicious or fraudulent sites that may steal their information, install malware, or display ads56. Typosquatting is not related to text messages or credential verification.
B: Phishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses fraudulent emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Phishing emails often mimic the appearance and tone of legitimate organizations, such as banks, retailers, or service providers, and use deceptive or urgent language to persuade the recipients to take action78. Phishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.
D: Vishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses voice calls to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. Vishing calls often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as law enforcement, government agencies, or technical support, and use scare tactics or false promises to persuade the recipients to comply9 . Vishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.
F: Misinformation is a type of social engineering technique that involves spreading false or misleading information to influence the beliefs, opinions, or actions of the target. Misinformation can be used to manipulate public perception, create confusion, damage reputation, or promote an agenda . Misinformation is not related to text messages or credential verification.
References = 1: What is Smishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 2: Smishing - Wikipedia 3:
Impersonation Attacks: What Are They and How Do You Protect Against Them? 4: Impersonation - Wikipedia 5: What is Typosquatting? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 6: Typosquatting - Wikipedia 7: What is Phishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 8: Phishing - Wikipedia 9: What isVishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky : Vishing - Wikipedia : What is Misinformation? | Definition and Examples | Britannica : Misinformation - Wikipedia
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following is the best reason to complete an audit in a banking environment?
- A. Self-assessment requirement
- B. Service-level requirement
- C. Organizational change
- D. Regulatory requirement
Answer: D
Explanation:
A regulatory requirement is a mandate imposed by a government or an authority that must be followed by an organization or an individual. In a banking environment, audits are often required by regulators to ensure compliance with laws, standards, and policies related to security, privacy, and financial reporting. Audits help to identify and correct any gaps or weaknesses in the security posture and the internal controls of the organization.
Reference:
Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 507
Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications 2
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data?
- A. Buffer overflow
- B. SQL injection
- C. Side loading
- D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
= SQL injection is a type of attack that enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data in a database. SQL stands for Structured Query Language, which is a language used to communicate with databases. By injecting malicious SQL statements into an input field, an attacker can bypass authentication, access sensitive information, modify or delete data, or execute commands on the server.
SQL injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application
vulnerabilities. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 195. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page
8.
NEW QUESTION # 110
After a recent vulnerability scan, a security engineer needs to harden the routers within the corporate network.
Which of the following is the most appropriate to disable?
- A. VLANs
- B. Console access
- C. Routing protocols
- D. Web-based administration
Answer: D
Explanation:
Web-based administration is a feature that allows users to configure and manage routers through a web browser interface. While this feature can provide convenience and ease of use, it can also pose a security risk, especially if the web interface is exposed to the internet or uses weak authentication or encryption methods.
Web-based administration can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the router's settings, firmware, or data, or to launch attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) or cross-site request forgery (CSRF).
Therefore, disabling web-based administration is a good practice to harden the routers within the corporate network. Console access, routing protocols, and VLANs are other features that can be configured on routers, but they are not the most appropriate to disable for hardening purposes. Console access is a physical connection to the router that requires direct access to the device, which can be secured by locking the router in a cabinet or using a strong password. Routing protocols are essential for routers to exchange routing information and maintain network connectivity, and they can be secured by using authentication or encryption mechanisms. VLANs are logical segments of a network that can enhance network performance and security by isolating traffic and devices, and they can be secured by using VLAN access control lists (VACLs) or private VLANs (PVLANs). References: CCNA SEC: Router Hardening Your Router's Security Stinks: Here's How to Fix It
NEW QUESTION # 111
During the onboarding process, an employee needs to create a password for an intranet account. The password must include ten characters, numbers, and letters, and two special characters. Once the password is created, the company will grant the employee access to other company-owned websites based on the intranet profile.
Which of the following access management concepts is the company most likely using to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user's intranet account? (Select two).
- A. Default password changes
- B. Password manager
- C. Identity proofing
- D. Federation
- E. Password complexity
- F. Open authentication
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or organizations. Federation relies on a trusted third party that stores the user's credentials and provides them to the requested resources or services without exposing them.
Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create passwords that meet certain criteria, such as length, character types, and uniqueness. Password complexity can help prevent brute-force attacks, password guessing, and credential stuffing by making passwords harder to crack or guess. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 and
312-313 1
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following describes a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system?
- A. DLP
- B. SNMP
- C. IDS
- D. SIEM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management. It is a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system. SIEM can analyze the collected data, correlate events, generate alerts, and provide reports and dashboards. SIEM can also integrate with other security tools and support compliance requirements. SIEM helps organizations to detect and respond to cyber threats, improve security posture, and reduce operational costs. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page
393. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 397.
NEW QUESTION # 113
Which of the following methods to secure credit card data is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card?
- A. Encryption
- B. Masking
- C. Tokenization
- D. Hashing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Masking is a method to secure credit card data that involves replacing some or all of the digits with symbols, such as asterisks, dashes, or Xs, while leaving some of the original digits visible. Masking is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card, as it can prevent unauthorized access to the full card number, while still allowing identification and verification of the cardholder. Masking does not alter the original data, unlike encryption, hashing, or tokenization, which use algorithms to transform the data into different formats.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2: Compliance and Operational Security, page 721. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 2:
Compliance and Operational Security, page 722.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
- A. Steganography
- B. Key stretching
- C. Data masking
- D. Salting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords fromproducing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks. References =
* Passwords technical overview
* Encryption, hashing, salting - what's the difference?
* Salt (cryptography)
NEW QUESTION # 115
A company is working with a vendor to perform a penetration test Which of the following includes an estimate about the number of hours required to complete the engagement?
- A. SLA
- B. NDA
- C. BPA
- D. SOW
Answer: D
Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, timeline, and costs of a project or service. It typically includes an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved. A SOW is often used for penetration testing projects to ensure that both the client and the vendor have a clear and mutual understanding of what is expected and how the work will be performed. A business partnership agreement (BPA), a service level agreement (SLA), and a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) are different types of contracts that may be related to a penetration testing project, but they do not include an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page
492; What to Look For in a Penetration Testing Statement of Work?
NEW QUESTION # 116
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