[Oct 29, 2024] CIPT Exam Dumps - Try Best CIPT Exam Questions - GuideTorrent
Verified CIPT exam dumps Q&As with Correct 222 Questions and Answers
The Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) certification exam covers topics such as privacy engineering, privacy by design, data protection, and privacy-enhancing technologies. Candidates are tested on their understanding of privacy laws and regulations, as well as their ability to apply privacy principles to the technologies and systems used in their organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 39
An organization is launching a smart watch which, in addition to alerts, will notify the the wearer of incoming calls allowing them to answer on the device. This convenience also comes with privacy concerns and is an example of?
- A. Value-Sensitive Design.
- B. Anthropomorphism.
- C. Coupling
- D. Ubiquitous computing.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The smart watch that notifies the wearer of incoming calls and allows them to answer on the device is an example of ubiquitous computing. Ubiquitous computing refers to the integration of computing processes into everyday objects and activities, creating an environment where technology is seamlessly embedded and always accessible. While this increases convenience, it also raises privacy concerns as it often involves continuous data collection and processing. (Reference: IAPP CIPT Study Guide, Chapter on Emerging Technologies and Privacy)
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is considered a client-side IT risk?
- A. An organization increases the number of applications on its server.
- B. IDs used to avoid the use of personal data map to personal data in another database.
- C. An employee stores his personal information on his company laptop.
- D. Security policies focus solely on internal corporate obligations.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Client-side IT risks refer to vulnerabilities or threats that originate from the end-user's side. When an employee stores personal information on a company laptop, it poses a security risk as this data can be exposed through loss, theft, or improper handling of the device.
References:
* IAPP CIPT Study Guide: IT Risks and Mitigation.
* IAPP Certified Information Privacy Technologist (CIPT) Handbook: Section on Client-Side Risks.
NEW QUESTION # 41
An organization needs to be able to manipulate highly sensitive personal information without revealing the contents of the data to the users. The organization should investigate the use of?
- A. Quantum encryption
- B. Homomorphic encryption
- C. Pseudonymization
- D. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Homomorphic encryption allows an organization to manipulate highly sensitive personal information without revealing the contents of the data to the users. This encryption method enables computations to be performed on encrypted data, producing an encrypted result that, when decrypted, matches the result of operations performed on the plain data. This technique maintains data confidentiality while allowing for meaningful analysis and processing, as detailed in the IAPP's CIPT resources on advanced encryption techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 42
What element is most conducive to fostering a sound privacy by design culture in an organization?
- A. Gaining advocacy from senior management.
- B. Frequent privacy and security awareness training for employees.
- C. Ensuring all employees acknowledge and understood the privacy policy.
- D. Monthly reviews of organizational privacy principles.
Answer: A
Explanation:
gaining advocacy from senior management is the element most conducive to fostering a sound privacy by design culture in an organization. Senior management plays a crucial role in setting the tone and direction for privacy practices within an organization and their support is essential for establishing a strong privacy culture.
NEW QUESTION # 43
SCENARIO
Looking back at your first two years as the Director of Personal Information Protection and Compliance for the St. Anne's Regional Medical Center in Thorn Bay, Ontario, Canada, you see a parade of accomplishments, from developing state-of-the-art simulation based training for employees on privacy protection to establishing an interactive medical records system that is accessible by patients as well as by the medical personnel. Now, however, a question you have put off looms large: how do we manage all the data-not only records produced recently, but those still on-hand from years ago? A data flow diagram generated last year shows multiple servers, databases, and work stations, many of which hold files that have not yet been incorporated into the new records system. While most of this data is encrypted, its persistence may pose security and compliance concerns. The situation is further complicated by several long-term studies being conducted by the medical staff using patient information. Having recently reviewed the major Canadian privacy regulations, you want to make certain that the medical center is observing them.
You recall a recent visit to the Records Storage Section in the basement of the old hospital next to the modern facility, where you noticed paper records sitting in crates labeled by years, medical condition or alphabetically by patient name, while others were in undifferentiated bundles on shelves and on the floor. On the back shelves of the section sat data tapes and old hard drives that were often unlabeled but appeared to be years old. On your way out of the records storage section, you noticed a man leaving whom you did not recognize. He carried a batch of folders under his arm, apparently records he had removed from storage.
You quickly realize that you need a plan of action on the maintenance, secure storage and disposal of data.
Which cryptographic standard would be most appropriate for protecting patient credit card information in the records system at St. Anne's Regional Medical Center?
- A. Obfuscation
- B. Certificates
- C. Tokenization
- D. Symmetric Encryption
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following functionalities can meet some of the General Data Protection Regulation's (GDPR's) Data Portability requirements for a social networking app designed for users in the EU?
- A. Allow users to delete the content they provided the app.
- B. Allow users to modify the data they provided the app.
- C. Allow users to get a time-stamped list of what they have provided the app.
- D. Allow users to download the content they have provided the app.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 45
When writing security policies, the most important consideration is to?
- A. Follow industry best practices.
- B. Ensure they cover enough details for common situations.
- C. Require all employees to read and acknowledge their understanding.
- D. Ensure they are based on the organization's risk profile.
Answer: D
Explanation:
the most important consideration when writing security policies is to ensure they are based on the organization's risk profile. This means that the policies should be tailored to address the specific risks faced by the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Properly configured databases and well-written website codes are the best protection against what online threat?
- A. Pharming.
- B. SQL injection.
- C. System modification.
- D. Malware execution.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which is the most accurate type of biometrics?
- A. Facial recognition.
- B. DNA
- C. Voiceprint.
- D. Fingerprint.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://www.bayometric.com/biometrics-face-finger-iris-palm-voice/
NEW QUESTION # 48
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Chuck, a compliance auditor for a consulting firm focusing on healthcare clients, was required to travel to the client's office to perform an onsite review of the client's operations. He rented a car from Finley Motors upon arrival at the airport as so he could commute to and from the client's office. The car rental agreement was electronically signed by Chuck and included his name, address, driver's license, make/model of the car, billing rate, and additional details describing the rental transaction. On the second night, Chuck was caught by a red light camera not stopping at an intersection on his way to dinner. Chuck returned the car back to the car rental agency at the end week without mentioning the infraction and Finley Motors emailed a copy of the final receipt to the address on file.
Local law enforcement later reviewed the red light camera footage. As Finley Motors is the registered owner of the car, a notice was sent to them indicating the infraction and fine incurred. This notice included the license plate number, occurrence date and time, a photograph of the driver, and a web portal link to a video clip of the violation for further review. Finley Motors, however, was not responsible for the violation as they were not driving the car at the time and transferred the incident to AMP Payment Resources for further review. AMP Payment Resources identified Chuck as the driver based on the rental agreement he signed when picking up the car and then contacted Chuck directly through a written letter regarding the infraction to collect the fine.
After reviewing the incident through the AMP Payment Resources' web portal, Chuck paid the fine using his personal credit card. Two weeks later, Finley Motors sent Chuck an email promotion offering 10% off a future rental.
What is the strongest method for authenticating Chuck's identity prior to allowing access to his violation information through the AMP Payment Resources web portal?
- A. By requiring Chuck use the rental agreement number in combination with his email address.
- B. By requiring Chuck use his credit card number in combination with the last 4 digits of his driver's license.
- C. By requiring Chuck use the last 4 digits of his driver's license number in combination with a unique PIN provided within the violation notice.
- D. By requiring Chuck to call AMP Payment Resources directly and provide his date of birth and home address.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The strongest method for authenticating Chuck's identity involves a combination of something he knows (the last 4 digits of his driver's license number) and something he possesses (a unique PIN provided within the violation notice). This two-factor authentication method increases security by ensuring that even if one piece of information is compromised, unauthorized access is still prevented. This approach aligns with best practices for secure authentication, as outlined by the IAPP, which emphasizes multi-factor authentication to enhance the security of sensitive information.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Not updating software for a system that processes human resources data with the latest security patches may create what?
- A. Privacy vulnerabilities.
- B. Authentication issues.
- C. Privacy threat vectors.
- D. Reportable privacy violations.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 50
What is the main function of a breach response center?
- A. Providing training to internal constituencies.
- B. Addressing privacy incidents.
- C. Detecting internal security attacks.
- D. Interfacing with privacy regulators and governmental bodies.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The main function of a breach response center is to address privacy incidents1. A breach response center is a team of experts that conducts a comprehensive breach response when a data breach occurs1. The breach response center may include forensics, legal, information security, information technology, operations, human resources, communications, investor relations, and management1. The other options are not the main function of a breach response center, but rather possible tasks or roles that may be involved in a breach response.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following does NOT illustrate the 'respect to user privacy' principle?
- A. Enabling Data Subject Access Request (DSARs) that provide rights for correction, deletion, amendment and rectification of personal information.
- B. Filing breach notification paperwork with data protection authorities which detail the impact to data subjects.
- C. Implementing privacy elements within the user interface that facilitate the use of technology by any visually-challenged users.
- D. Developing a consent management self-service portal that enables the data subjects to review the details of consent provided to an organization.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Option A (Implementing privacy elements for visually-challenged users): This demonstrates respect to user privacy by ensuring that technology is accessible to all users, including those with disabilities. It aligns with the principle of inclusivity and respect for all users.
* Option B (Enabling DSARs): This directly respects user privacy by allowing individuals to exercise their rights to access, correct, delete, amend, and rectify their personal information. It is a core aspect of privacy rights under regulations like GDPR.
* Option C (Consent management portal): Providing a consent management self-service portal allows users to review and manage their consent preferences. This empowers users with control over their personal data, which is a key aspect of respecting user privacy.
* Option D (Filing breach notification paperwork): Filing breach notification paperwork with data protection authorities is a compliance activity rather than an illustration of respect for user privacy.
While it is necessary and legally required, it does not directly interact with or respect user privacy principles in the same way as the other options.
References:
* GDPR Articles on Data Subject Rights (Articles 15-22).
* Principles of Privacy by Design and Respect for User Privacy (Ann Cavoukian's 7 Foundational Principles).
Conclusion: Filing breach notification paperwork with data protection authorities (Option D) is a necessary compliance activity but does not directly illustrate the 'respect to user privacy' principle in the same way as the other options.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following statements is true regarding software notifications and agreements?
- A. Website visitors must view the site's privacy statement before downloading software.
- B. It is a good practice to provide users with information about privacy prior to software installation.
- C. "Just in time" software agreement notifications provide users with a final opportunity to modify the agreement.
- D. Software agreements are designed to be brief, while notifications provide more details.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 53
A company configures their information system to have the following capabilities:
Allow for selective disclosure of attributes to certain parties, but not to others.
Permit the sharing of attribute references instead of attribute values - such as "I am over 21" instead of birthday date.
Allow for information to be altered or deleted as needed.
These capabilities help to achieve which privacy engineering objective?
- A. Predictability.
- B. Disassociability.
- C. Integrity.
- D. Manageability.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 54
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The CIPT exam covers a wide range of topics related to privacy technologies, including data protection, privacy risk assessment, data retention, and data transfer. CIPT exam is designed to test the candidate’s understanding of the privacy laws and regulations, as well as their ability to implement privacy policies and procedures in an organization. CIPT exam is also designed to test the candidate’s understanding of the latest privacy technologies and their application in an organization.
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