AAPC CPC Study Guide Archives Updated on Sep 06, 2026
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AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 21
Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
Anesthesia: General.0
Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required # limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition.
There were no complications.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 52320-RT, 52332-RT
- B. 52356-RT, 52332-RT
- C. 52356-RT
- D. 52353-RT, 52332-RT
Answer: C
Explanation:
52356 = Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy, lithotripsy and stent placement Combination code # do not report components separately
NEW QUESTION # 22
(Preoperative diagnoses:Bradycardia.
Postoperative diagnosis:Bradycardia.
Procedure performed:Dual-chamber pacemaker implantation.
Brief history:77-year-old female with recurrent syncope; evaluation revealed first-degree AV block, sinus bradycardia, bundle-branch block; bradyarrhythmia suspected; after discussion with her sister, dual-chamber pacemaker recommended; risks explained; consent obtained.
Procedure details:Taken to cardiac catheterization lab; positioned on cath table; prepped/draped standard; procedure challenging due to agitation despite adequate sedation; left infraclavicular area anesthetized with
0.5 cc Xylocaine; pacemaker pocket created; hemostasis with cautery; 9-French peel-away sheath used to introduce an atrial and a ventricular lead; leads positioned with excellent thresholds; secured with O-silk sutures over sleeves; pulse generator connected; pocket flushed with antibiotic solution; pacemaker/leads placed in pocket; incision closed in two layers; performed under fluoroscopic guidance.
Complication:None.
Plan:Return to recovery; discharge later this evening to nursing home with routine post-pacemaker care.
Question:What CPT coding is reported for this procedure?)
- A. 0
- B. 33206, 33207
- C. 1
- D. 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
This operative report documents anew permanent dual-chamber pacemaker implantation: creation of a subcutaneouspocket, placement oftwo transvenous leads(oneatrialand oneventricular) via a peel-away sheath, confirmation of thresholds, and connection/insertion of thepulse generatorinto the pocket with layered closure.
CPT pacemaker insertion coding is determined by thenumber of chambers/leads placedduring the session.
33208is the correct code for insertion of adual-chamberpermanent pacemaker system (atrial and ventricular leads with generator).33206is for asingle-chamber ventricularsystem and33207is for asingle-chamber atrialsystem, so neither matches a dual-lead implantation. Reporting 33206 and 33207 together is not correct because CPT provides the single comprehensive dual-chamber code when both leads are placed. The fluoroscopic guidance and catheterization lab setting support how the leads were placed but do not change the CPT selection, and "challenging due to agitation" does not by itself create a separate reportable service.
Therefore, report33208.
NEW QUESTION # 23
A catheter is placed from the femoral artery into the right common carotid, with imaging of the ipsilateral extracranial carotid and bilateral external carotids.
Which CPT codes are reported?
- A. 36225, 36227-51 ×2
- B. 36222, 36227 ×2
- C. 36223, 36227 ×2
- D. 36224-50, 36227-51 ×2
Answer: C
Explanation:
36223 = Selective catheterization of common carotid with imaging
36227 ×2 = Bilateral external carotid angiography
NEW QUESTION # 24
A 55-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with an enlarged goiter. It has been two years since her last visit to the endocrinologist. A new doctor in the exact same specialty group will be examining her. The physician performs a medically appropriate history and exam. The provider reviewed the TSH results and ultrasound.
The provider orders a fine needle aspiration biopsy which is a minor procedure.
What E/M code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
The patient is seeing a new doctor in the same specialty group for an enlarged goiter and is undergoing a medically appropriate history and exam, along with a fine needle aspiration biopsy.
Procedure Description:
Medically appropriate history and exam.
Review of TSH results and ultrasound.
Ordering of fine needle aspiration biopsy.
CPT Coding:
99202: Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient, which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and straightforward medical decision making.
Since it has been two years since the last visit and the patient is being seen by a new doctor in the same specialty group, the encounter is considered a new patient visit.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on evaluation and management services.
NEW QUESTION # 25
A patient has chronic cholesteatoma in the right middle ear. The otolaryngologist performed a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy, removing the middle ear cholesteatoma. Grafting technique was used to repair the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction.
What CPT code is reported for this surgery?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
The procedure involves a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy and removal of a cholesteatoma from the middle ear, including grafting of the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction.
* Procedure Description:
* Tympanoplasty.
* Radical mastoidectomy.
* Removal of cholesteatoma from the middle ear.
* Grafting technique used to repair the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction.
* CPT Coding:
* 69645: Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty, atticotomy and/or middle ear surgery), radical or complete, with removal of cholesteatoma; with mastoid obliteration.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
* CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on otolaryngology procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 26
The CPT code book provides full descriptions of medical procedures, although some descriptions require the use of a semicolon (;) to distinguish among closely related procedures.
What is the full description of CPT code 69644?
- A. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
- B. With intact or reconstructed canal wall with ossicular chain reconstruction
- C. Without ossicular chain reconstruction with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
- D. Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty. middle ear surgery, tympanic membrane repair); with intact or reconstructed canal wall, with ossicular chain reconstruction
Answer: D
Explanation:
CPT code 69644 refers to a tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy, which includes canalplasty, middle ear surgery, and tympanic membrane repair. The specific procedure described by this code is performed with an intact or reconstructed canal wall and includes ossicular chain reconstruction. The use of a semicolon in the CPT description helps distinguish between different variations of the procedure.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition, specific code descriptions and guidelines.
NEW QUESTION # 27
The gynecologist performs a colposcopy of the cervix including biopsy and endocervical curettage.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Colposcopy of the Cervix: This involves a visual examination of the cervix using a colposcope.
Biopsy and Endocervical Curettage: The procedures performed include taking a biopsy and scraping the lining of the cervical canal.
CPT Code 57454: This code represents a colposcopy of the cervix with biopsy and endocervical curettage.
Reference:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 28
A patient arrives with stridor and in respiratory distress. The provider performs a micro laryngoscopy using a Parson's laryngoscope and magnifying telescope. A bronchoscopy was also performed using a 2.5 Stortz bronchoscope. The findings include subglottic web and stenosis with laryngeal edema suggestive of reflux. There was also significant collapse of the trachea at the carina and into the main bronchi bilaterally.
What CPTcoding is reported?
- A. 31629, 31526-51
- B. 31622, 69990
- C. 31622, 31526-51, 69990
- D. 31622, 31526-51
Answer: D
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The provider performed both a bronchoscopy and a microlaryngoscopy to evaluate the patient's airway due to respiratory distress and stridor.
Code 31622 is used for a diagnostic bronchoscopy, which includes the inspection of the trachea, carina, and bronchial structures. Since the bronchoscopy was diagnostic and no additional therapeutic procedures were performed, this is the appropriate code.
Code 31526 is for direct laryngoscopy with the use of an operating microscope or telescope (microlaryngoscopy). This code is appropriate given the use of a Parson's laryngoscope and magnifying telescope to inspect the larynx.
2. Modifier 51:
Modifier 51 is added to 31526 to indicate that it was performed in conjunction with another procedure (31622, bronchoscopy). Modifier 51 denotes multiple procedures without the necessity of a separate incision.
3. Exclusion of Code 69990:
Code 69990 is used for the use of an operating microscope in microsurgery but is not coded separately when the procedure (such as microlaryngoscopy) already includes visualization with a microscope or telescope as part of the CPTdescriptor. Thus, 69990 is not separately reported in this scenario, per CPTguidelines.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
The guidelines specify that when visualization or microlaryngoscopy is inherently part of the procedure (as in
31526), 69990 should not be billed separately. Also, the use of Modifier 51 for multiple procedures in the same session is appropriate.
Therefore, the verified answer, following the CPTand AAPC coding rules, is A. 31622, 31526-51.
NEW QUESTION # 29
A patient suffering from idiopathic dystonia is seen today and receives the following Botulinum injections:
three muscle injections in both upper extremities and seven injections in six paraspinal muscles.
How are these injections reported according to the CPT guidelines?
- A. 64642 x 3, 64642 x 3, 64647 x 7
- B. 64642, 64643, 64647
- C. 64644, 64647 x 7
- D. 64642-50, 64643-50, 64647
Answer: D
Explanation:
For the injections, CPT code 64642 is used for chemodenervation of one extremity; 64643 for each additional extremity, and 64647 for chemodenervation of muscles in the paraspinal region. The modifier -50 is added to 64642 and 64643 to indicate bilateral procedures. According to CPT guidelines, when multiple sites are treated, each site is coded separately, and appropriate modifiers are used.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Nervous System.
NEW QUESTION # 30
The pulmonologist performs a bronchoscopy with fluoroscopic guidance. The scope is introduced into the right nostril and advanced to the vocal cords and into the trachea. The scope is advanced to the right upper lobe and a lung nodule is noted. An endobronchial biopsy is performed.
What CPT code is reported for the procedure?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 31
A 46-year-old female is admitted to the hospital by her urologist for a left ureteral calculus. The urologist visits her again on day two and performs a low for number and complexity of problems addressed, minimal for amount and/or complexity of data to be reviewed and analyzed, and moderate for risk of complications.
What E/M service is reported for day two?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. E/M Service Code Selection:
On day two, the urologist provided an evaluation and management (E/M) service for a hospitalized patient with a low level for the number and complexity of problems addressed, minimal complexity for data reviewed, and moderate risk of complications.
CPTCode 99232 is for a subsequent hospital care E/M service with a level of "Expanded Problem Focused" history and examination, with Medical Decision Making (MDM) of Moderate complexity. This matches the description provided, as the MDM includes a low number of problems, minimal data, and moderate risk.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 99233 is for a subsequent hospital care visit with high complexity MDM (e.g., addressing a high number of problems or higher levels of data review), which does not align with the moderate risk described here.
Code 99221 is for initial hospital care, not a subsequent visit.
Code 99231 represents a lower level of subsequent hospital care with straightforward or low complexity MDM, which does not meet the moderate risk criteria in this scenario.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC and CPTguidelines indicate 99232 as appropriate for subsequent hospital visits with moderate MDM, such as this visit with moderate risk but minimal data complexity.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. 99232.
NEW QUESTION # 32
From a left femoral access, the catheter is placed within the proper hepatic artery, dye is injected, and imaging is obtained. A stenosis within this artery is identified. A percutaneous transluminal angioplasty is performed on the proper hepatic (visceral) artery in the outpatient radiology department.
What CPTcoding is reported?
- A. 36253, 75726-26-59, 37246-51
- B. 36247, 75736-26-59, 37248-51
- C. 36253, 75736-26-59, 37248-51
- D. 36247, 75726-26-59, 37246-51
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. Procedure Details and CPTCode Selection:
The patient underwent a catheter placement in the proper hepatic artery (a visceral artery), followed by dye injection and imaging to identify a stenosis, and finally a percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of the artery.
Code 36247 is appropriate for selective catheter placement in the third-order or more selective branch of a visceral artery. Since the proper hepatic artery is a selective branch accessed from the left femoral artery, this code accurately describes the catheter placement.
Code 75736 is for angiography of a selective visceral artery following catheter placement, which matches the imaging procedure performed here.
Code 37248 describes a percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of a visceral artery, which is the therapeutic intervention performed to treat the stenosis in the proper hepatic artery.
2. Modifiers:
Modifier 26 is used with 75736 to denote the professional component of the imaging service.
Modifier 59 indicates that the imaging (75736) is a distinct procedural service, separate from the therapeutic angioplasty (37248).
Modifier 51 is applied to 37248 to indicate it was a secondary procedure in addition to the diagnostic imaging and catheter placement.
3. Exclusion of Other Options:
Code 36253 (in choices A and D) is for selective catheter placement in a different vessel and does not apply to the hepatic artery.
Code 75726 is for non-selective abdominal aortography, which does not match the specific selective imaging of the hepatic artery.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC guidelines, each step in an angiographic and interventional radiology procedure is coded based on the level of vessel accessed, imaging performed, and therapeutic intervention completed, which is all accurately represented by 36247, 75736-26-59, and 37248-51.
Based on CPTand AAPC coding guidelines, the correct answer is C. 36247, 75736-26-59, 37248-51.
You said:
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which one of the following is a commercial or private payer?
- A. Blue Cross Blue Shield
- B. Veterans Health Administration (VHA)
- C. Medicaid
- D. Medicare
Answer: A
Explanation:
Blue Cross Blue Shield is a commercial or private payer, which means it is an insurance company that provides health insurance plans to individuals and groups. In contrast, Medicare and Medicaid are government programs, and the Veterans Health Administration (VHA) is a federal healthcare system for military veterans.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Appendix B: Payers and Reimbursement.
NEW QUESTION # 34
A patient presents with fever, cough, SOB, and a recent history of COVID-19. A PCR test was positive for COVID-19. The provider documents a final diagnosis of "pneumonia with history of COVID-19." What ICD-10-CM coding is reported?
- A. J18.9, U09.9
- B. U07.1, J22
- C. U07.1, J20.9
- D. J18.9, Z86.16
Answer: D
Explanation:
The provider documents history of COVID-19, not active COVID-19.
Z86.16 = Personal history of COVID-19
J18.9 = Pneumonia, unspecified organism
Codes U07.1 and U09.9 are for current or post-COVID conditions, which are not documented here.
Therefore, A is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A patient that delivered her second child vaginally has a history of having a previous cesarean delivery for the first child.
What CPTcode is reported for the delivery of the second child with antepartum care and postpartum care with the same provider?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient delivered her second child vaginally after having a previous cesarean delivery for her first child.
This scenario describes a Vaginal Birth After Cesarean (VBAC).
CPTCode 59610 is specific for a vaginal delivery after a previous cesarean delivery, including antepartum and postpartum care with the same provider, which matches this case exactly.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 59410 covers only vaginal delivery with postpartum care but does not include a history of previous cesarean delivery, so it is not appropriate for a VBAC.
Code 59400 is for routine vaginal delivery with antepartum and postpartum care but, again, does not account for a previous cesarean, so it does not apply in this VBAC scenario.
Code 59614 is for a VBAC but does not include antepartum care, making it incomplete for this scenario since the question specifies that antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care were provided by the same provider.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC and CPTguidelines indicate that 59610 should be used for a complete VBAC service that includes antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care by the same provider.
Therefore, based on CPTguidelines, the correct answer is B. 59610.
NEW QUESTION # 36
(Patient presents to the office for the removal of15 actinic keratoseslesions. The provider destroys these lesions withlaser surgery. What CPT coding is reported for this visit?)
- A. 0
- B. 17110, 17111
- C. 1
- D. 17000, 17003
Answer: A
Explanation:
Actinic keratoses (AKs) are coded using thepremalignant lesion destructionCPT family17000-17004, regardless of the destruction method (e.g., laser, cryotherapy, electrosurgery), as long as the intent is destruction. Coding is based on thenumber of lesions treated in that session:17000covers thefirstlesion,
17003is an add-on code for2-14 additional lesions, and17004is used when treating15 or more lesions.
Because the encounter documents destruction of15 AK lesions, CPT requires reporting17004only (not 17000
+ multiple units of 17003). Codes17110/17111are for destruction ofbenignlesions (e.g., warts, molluscum), which is the wrong lesion category. On CPC exams, the key is matchingpremalignant vs benignand then selecting the correct code bylesion count threshold-here the threshold is met for17004.
NEW QUESTION # 37
(A patient suffering fromlateral epicondylitisin the left elbow is sent to the operating room tomanipulate the elbow. The patient is placed undergeneral anesthesiaby the anesthesiologist. The physician manipulates the elbow through stretching and rotation to restore motion. What CPT coding is reported for the physician?)
- A. 0
- B. 24300, 01710
- C. 1
- D. 24605, 01710
Answer: C
Explanation:
The physician performed anorthopedic manipulation of the elbow under anesthesia, which is reported withCPT 24300(manipulation, elbow, under anesthesia). The anesthesia service is separately reported by theanesthesia provider(the anesthesiologist/CRNA) using an anesthesia CPT code, but the question asks specifically what is reportedfor the physicianperforming the manipulation-not the anesthesiologist.
Therefore, you donotassign the anesthesia code (e.g., 01710) to the manipulating physician. Option A is incorrect because it includes anesthesia coding under the physician. Options B and D include24605, which represents a different service (not the correct manipulation-under-anesthesia code for this vignette). CPC exam strategy: identifywhois billing (surgeon vs anesthesiologist) and select the CPT code that describes the physician's operative service. Here, the physician's work is the manipulation itself, accurately captured by24300alone.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Patient has cervical spondylosis with myelopathy. The surgeon performed a bilateral posterior laminectomy with facetectomies at each level and foraminotomies performed between interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7.
Bilateral decompression of the nerve roots is achieved.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 63045, 63048
- B. 0
- C. 63040-50, 63043, 63043
- D. 63050-50
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy: Condition requiring decompressive surgery.
* Bilateral posterior laminectomy, facetectomies, foraminotomies: Procedures performed to decompress nerve roots.
* Interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7: Specific levels where the procedures were performed.
CPT code 63045 is used for the initial cervical laminectomy, and 63048 is for each additional segment. The combination covers the decompression across two interspaces.
References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 39
A provider orders liquid chromatography mass spectrometry (LC-MS) definitive drug test for a patient suspected of acetaminophen (analgesic) overdose. What CPT code is reported for the test?
- A. B0329
- B. 0
- C. 1
- D. 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Frozen section pathology coding rules:
88331 - Frozen section, first tissue block, each specimen
88332 - Frozen section, each additional tissue block, same specimen
Breakdown:
Specimen 1
Block 1 → 88331 × 1
Block 2 → 88332 × 1
Specimen 2
Block 1 → 88331 × 1
Block 2 → 88332 × 1
However, multiple frozen sections per tissue block are separately reportable:
Total first blocks = 4 frozen sections → 88331 × 4
Total additional blocks = 3 frozen sections → 88332 × 3
CPT pathology guidelines require coding by tissue block and specimen, not by polyp alone.
NEW QUESTION # 40
A diagnostic mammogram is performed on the left and right breasts. Computer-aided detection is also used to further analyze the image for possible lesions.
What CPT coding is reported for this radiology service?
- A. 0
- B. 77066-50
- C. 77067-50
- D. 77065-LT, 77065-RT
Answer: A
Explanation:
A diagnostic mammogram performed on both breasts with computer-aided detection (CAD) is reported with CPT code 77066. This code is used when CAD is utilized to further analyze the images for possible lesions, and it covers both breasts.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 41
A 58-year-old male suffered an acute STEMI of the inferolateral wall while running a marathon on June 15 and had received treatment. Three weeks later, the patient presents to the ED complaining of SOB and left arm pain. An EKG is performed as well as blood tests. Patient is admitted for further evaluation.
What diagnosis code is reported for this encounter?
- A. 121.29
- B. 122.2
- C. 121.19
- D. 121.3
Answer: A
Explanation:
For this encounter, ICD-10-CM guidelines dictate that a myocardial infarction (MI) that occurs within four weeks (28 days) of an initial MI is considered to be in the acute phase. Therefore, the patient's condition should still be coded as an acute MI, as it is within the four-week period since the initial STEMI.
B: I21.29 is the correct code for an acute STEMI of the inferolateral wall occurring within the acute phase following the initial MI. The code I21.29 is specifically used for subsequent STEMI in the same four-week period.
Explanation of incorrect options:
A: I22.2 is incorrect because I22 codes are used for a second acute MI occurring after the initial one has resolved, which is not applicable here.
C: I21.19 and D. I21.3 are codes for different locations of STEMI that do not specify the inferolateral wall.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. I21.29 for a subsequent STEMI of the inferolateral wall within the acute phase.
NEW QUESTION # 42
......
CPC Questions Prepare with Learning Information: https://www.guidetorrent.com/CPC-pdf-free-download.html
Practice Material for CPC Exam Question Preparation: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1qW7dVJTmE-TGeqs77eQ89wyKjnlcCD2T