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GARP International Certificate in Banking Risk and Regulation (ICBRR) Sample Questions:

1. For a bank a 1-year VaR of USD 10 million at 95% confidence level means that:

A) There is a 5% chance that the bank would lose more than USD 10 million in a year.
B) There is a 5% chance that the worst loss would be USD 10 million in a year.
C) There is a 5% chance that the bank would lose less than USD 10 million in a year.
D) There is a 5% chance that the least loss would be USD 10 million in a year.

2. When a credit risk manager analyzes default patterns in a specific neighborhood, she finds that defaults are increasing as the stigma of default evaporates, and more borrowers default. This phenomenon constitutes

A) Speculative bias
B) Herd behavior
C) Adverse selection
D) Moral hazard

3. Which of the following reports have been suggested by the FDIC that banks should produce in addition to the usual probabilistic analysis and stress tests in order to gauge liquidity issues?
I. Cash flow gaps
II. Funding availability
III.
Critical assumptions used in credit projections

A) I, II
B) I, III
C) I
D) I, II, III

4. In additional to the commodity-specific risks, which of the following risks represent the main commodity derivative risks?
I. Basis
II. Term
III. Correlation
IV.
Seasonality

A) I, II, III, IV
B) II, III
C) I, II
D) I, IV

5. Which one of the following four statements regarding bank's exposure to credit and default risk is INCORRECT?

A) The more the bank diversifies its credit portfolio, the better spread its credit risks become.
B) Default risk cannot be hedged away fully, and it will always exist for the holder of the credit or for the person insuring against the credit or default event.
C) In debt management, the value of any loan exposure will change typically in a fashion similar the same way that an equity investment can.
D) In debt management, the goal is to minimize the effect of any defaults.

Solutions: